(中学篇)2012年第5期《从试题的难度看课堂教学———以2011年江西省英语中考卷为例》一文涉及的中考试题及参考答案

江西省2011年中等学校招生考试英
 
说明:1. 本卷分为试题卷和答题卷,答案请写在答题卷上,不要在试题卷上作答,否则不给分。
  2. 本卷共有5大题、86小题,全卷满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
 
一、听力测试(25分)
现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。
What is the boy going to buy?
    A. Some juice.         B. Some oranges.          C. Some apples.
答案是C。
 
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
1. What does the woman want to do?
A. To go for a walk.        B. To watch TV.             C. To go to a movie.
2. What’s the man’s telephone number?
A. 8521639.              B. 8513269.                C. 8532619.
3. How’s the weather in London tomorrow?
A. Rainy.                B. Snowy.                   C. Windy.
4. Why is the girl late?
A. Because she had to do her homework at home.           
B. Because she visited her grandma this morning.               
C. Because she had to stay with her grandma at home.
5. What does the woman mean?
A. The man phoned the dentist earlier before that.           
B. The man may not see the dentist right now.                   
C. She is sorry that she is too busy to help him.
 
B)请听下面3段对话和2段独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前你都将有30秒钟的时间阅读各小题。每段对话或独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
 
请听第1段对话,回答第6至第7小题。
6. What would the man like to eat?
A. Noodles.               B. Dumplings.               C. Hamburgers.
7. Why didn’t the man eat breakfast?
A. Because he got up too late this morning.       
B. Because his aunt didn’t make it for him.      
  C. Because he was not feeling well this morning.
 
请听第2段对话,回答第8至第10小题。
8. Where did the woman go two months ago?
 A. Paris.                      B. New York.                   C. Sydney. 
9. How did the woman go there?
 A. By train.               B. By car.                   C. By plane.
10. How long did the woman stay in Disneyland?
   A. For two days.                    B. For three days.            C. For four days.
 
听第3段对话,回答第11至第13小题。  
11. When does the boy want to see a movie?
A. This Friday.               B. This Saturday.          C. This Sunday.
12. Which movie can the boy watch?
A. The Sound of Music.        B. My Father’s Birthday.     C. Black September.
13. What can we get from this conversation?
A. The tickets are 15 dollars each.            
B. The movie starts at 8:00 in the morning.          
C. The boy thinks the tickets are too expensive.
 
听第1段独白,回答第14至第16小题。
14. Where does this monologue(独白) probably happen?
   A. At a bus stop.             B. In a car.                 C. In a classroom.
15. Who saved the driver’s life?
   A. His best friend.           B. The old lady.              C. The young woman.
16. How many people are there in the story?
 A. 3.                       B. 4.                      C. 5.
 
听第2段独白,回答第17至第20小题。
17. Where was the picture taken?                        
A. At my birthday party.                     B. At my mum’s birthday party.      
C. At my sister’s birthday party.
18. Who is an engineer ?
A. My father.               B. My mother.              C. Uncle Simon.
19. What is Aunt Liz good at ?
A. Speaking Chinese.        B. Singing.                C. Playing the piano.
20. Which of the following is true?
A. My father can play football.                B. My uncle is 45 years old.             
C. My parents are in the front of the picture. 
 
C)请听下面一段短文,根据短文内容完成表格,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置。听短文前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读表格内容。短文读两遍。(每小题1分)
 
 
Welcome to our party!
 
Time to start  21. at               tonight
Place            22. in the school           
For whom     23.                      
Things to bring24.                      
Activities    25. listening to songs,      
 
二、单项填空 (15分)                               
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
  26. Come on, ______ you’ll be late.
A. and            B. but             C. or             D. so
 
27. I can’t eat any more food, I am _______.
    A. busy          B. hungry        C. full            D. serious
 28. I hated my new school at first, but I made lots of friends and now I _____ it.
A. get            B. take           C. fit             D. love
29. —Where did you go for your winter vacation?
—My family went to Paris. ______ had a great time.
A. He            B. She           C. We            D. They
 30. I’ve decided to go to London next weekend. I was wondering ______ you could go with me.
    A. if             B. when         C. that           D. where
 31. The work is too hard for him. He _____ finish it on time.
    A. can’t          B. mustn’t         C. shouldn’t      D. needn’t
32. —Can I help you?
    —______. I want to buy some T-shirts for my children.
   A.Yes, please       B. No, thanks     C. It doesn’t matter D. Of course I can
33. Mary isn’t here at the moment. She ______ later.
A. comes         B. came           C. has come        D. is coming
34. —Would you like to play basketball with us this afternoon?
   —_______. I have to study for tomorrow’s test.
   A. I’d love to     B. I’m afraid not   C. Sounds good     D. No problem
35. Harriet is lost and her parents are really ______ her.
A. interested in     B. afraid of        C. busy with        D. worried about
36. I’m now in New York with my friend Jenny. We _____ by plane on Monday.
A. arrive          B. arrived          C. are arriving      D. will arrive
37. The doctor told me to eat more ______ because it’s good for my health.
    A. orange             B. vegetables          C. ice cream         D. fish
38. How kind you are! You always do what you can _____ me.
   A. help           B. helping         C. to help          D. helps
39. —We’re doing a lot to protect our environment, but it is not good enough.
   —So we should try _____ to look after it .
    A. hard           B. harder           C. hardest        D. hardly
40. —What happened to Billy?
   —He _____ because of his drink-driving.
A. is caught        B. was caught       C. has caught       D. had caught
 
三、完形填空 (25分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)

 

It Seemed Like a Good Idea at the Time

 

I really only meant it as a joke. I wasn’t trying to steal anything honestly.
My friend Matthew started bringing his new cell phone to class last week. He was walking around bragging (吹嘘) about it to everyone. He was saying, “My cell phone can download(下载) the newest  41  off the internet. ” Then he  42  everyone by downloading a game and starting to play it. The pictures and sound were really  43 .
  44  class, he would use his cell phone to watch TV. The rest of us didn’t have a phone like   45 , so we had to crowd around him.
I was just trying to see the screen, 46  there were so many other kids that I could not see it clearly. I was getting really jealous (嫉妒).
But then yesterday, he forgot his cell phone at the end of class. He left it right on his desk. 47  noticed it was there except me. I decided to teach him a lesson. I took his phone quietly off the desk, and put it in my own bag. My  48  was to give it back to him the next day. I  49    wanted to see his reaction(反应). Maybe he would stop being such a show-off.
But this morning he rushed into class, screaming and yelling (吼叫). He was very  50  and almost mad. He started accusing (指责) different people of  51  his phone, but I had it in my    52  the whole time. He even started fighting with another classmate  53  Matthew was sure that person had taken it. The teacher sent them to the headmaster’s office. They  54  got in a lot of trouble. Now I don’t know what to  55 ! If I tell him that I took the cell phone, he’ll think I stole it. If I don’t tell him, then I really did steal it. How did I get into such a trouble?
41. A. ads            B. songs            C. films            D. games
42. A. gave          B. showed          C. lent             D. asked
43. A. good          B. bad             C. noisy            D. unclear
44. A. After          B. During           C. In              D. From
45. A. hers           B. ours             C. his              D. theirs
46. A. and             B. but              C. if               D. so
47. A. Everybody      B. Somebody        C. Anybody        D. Nobody
48. A. plan           B. suggestion        C. dream           D. action
49. A. always          B. hardly             C. just            D. sometimes
50. A. happy           B. quiet             C. sad            D. angry
51. A. losing          B. stealing            C. playing          D. using
52. A. desk             B. hand              C. bag            D. pocket
53. A. if               B. because           C. until            D. though
54. A. both             B. all                C. neither          D. none
55. A. say              B. take               C. see            D. do
 
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从方框中所给的词中选出最恰当的10个,用其适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)
so  start   easy   badly     someone   difficult 
if   thank  class  reporter  medical    succeed
Proving Them Wrong!

I'm John Wood, a doctor at a famous Boston hospital. During the first two years of high school, I found biology very  56 . My report cards always said things like “must study harder” or “John shouldn’t choose science  57 .” It was really terrible for  58  who had always dreamed of becoming a doctor. I lost confidence, so I left high school at sixteen and  59  working at a supermarket.

 

One evening I saw a documentary about Albert Einstein. According to the documentary, Einstein had done really  60  at school. I began to think that if Einstein could  61 , then I may have a chance, too. I didn’t want to leave my job, 62  I decided to go to night school to finish high school. Two years later, I went to a  63  university.
I’ve often thought I should contact(联系)the  64  from the Einstein documentary and  65  him. As for the biology teacher, I might contact her, too, one day – but not to thank her!
 
四、阅读理解 (40分)  
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。(每小题2分)
 
                         A
 
 
 
66. If you want to find a job as a waiter, you can _________ to apply for it.
A. go to 6756 Main St.Southgate           B. go to 224 West Rose Ave.Richmond
C. fax resume to 555-0001                D. email resume: lewisnclark@dot. org
67. If you do office work at Francisco’s Shoe Shop, you should ________.
A. be trained                          B. have experience
C. speak English                       D. k now Spanish
68. If you work as a guide, you can get ________ an hour.
A. $ 8             B. $ 10             C. $ 12              D. $ 13
 
B
Welcome to the Amazing kids Website! Here you can read about clever children all over the world.
Gina, who is thirteen years old, got first prize in the “Young Cook of the Year” competition and is now writing her own recipe(烹饪)book for kids. “I want it to be fun to read and easy enough for children to use, ” she says. Gina learned by observing (观察) her father, who's also good at cooking, in the kitchen. She wants to encourage other children to cook because “everyone needs to eat, so it’s a skill that will always be useful!”
Fourteen-year-old Bren used to love running until he had a serious car accident three years ago. He lost part of one leg and didn’t even expect to walk again. Now he’s an athlete who has recently completed a marathon. “After my accident I wanted to give up, ” he says. “But now I’m happy to be alive and able to continue running.”
Helga has always been good at science, but she thought it was too difficult to become an inventor. Then she heard about an accident that had happened when a car hit a train in her town. “That gave me an idea, ” says the clever sixteen-year-old girl. It took her over a year to invent a special machine that tells car drivers when a train is coming. One company is already interested in selling it, so it may be in the shops soon!
69. How is Gina trying to encourage other children to cook?
A. By observing her father.                 B. By writing a recipe book for kids.
C. By getting first prize in the competition.    D. By giving them delicious food to eat.
70. Why is it surprising that Bren is an athlete?
A. Because he can’t walk.                  B. Because he lost part of one leg.
C. Because he gave up running.             D. Because he used to love running.          
71. Which of the following is true about Helga?
A. She saw a car hit a train in her town.
B. She sold special machines to car drivers .
C. She invented a special machine for car drivers. 
D. It is impossible for her to become an inventor.
72. Which would be the best title for the passage?
A. Amazing Kids, Special Abilities           B. How to Be a Good Student
C. Different People, Different Ideas           D. How to Get Living Skills
C

 

 

A young girl called Ida in Sweden decided to travel to a place she hadn’t seen for 22 years. She had a happy life until some kids asked, “Why don’t you look like your mom?” Ida was sent to her adopted (收养) family in Sweden right after she was born. She really didn’t know anything about her birthplace, Korea, except for some information she recently heard about her birthparents. 

During her schooldays, she was often questioned about her looks. Ida considered herself a normal Swedish person. She tried to be part of the group in her school, but she found it hard. She was still seen as an outsider.
As she grew older, she accepted(接受)who she was. Still, she wanted to find the missing piece of the puzzle (困惑). After finding out the place of her birthparents, Ida went to Korea in 2008. When she first arrived, she was surprised to see so many people who looked like her. However, apart from her looks, not much could be shared(分享)with others. She knew little about the culture, food, especially the language. Being in Korea wasn’t always easy for her.
Perhaps Ida can never truly fit in either culture, but it’s worth visiting her birthplace because she finally realized how special and different she is. She has two loving families, and most of all a better understanding of who she is. This helps her to have a positive view of her life.
73. Where was Ida born?
A. In Japan.        B. In Sweden.        C. In England.        D. In Korea.
74. Why was she seen as an outsider in Sweden?
A. Because of the culture.                B. Because of her looks.
C. Because of the food.                  D. Because of the language.
75. What does the phrase “apart from” in Paragraph 3 mean?
A. except         B. as for             C. as well as           D. besides
76. What can we learn from the passage?
A. Ida hadn’t seen her birthparents for at least 22 years.
B. Ida found it easy for her to get used to living in Korea.
C. Ida still couldn’t accept who she was after she went back to Sweden.
D. Ida realized she can’t live a happy life either in Sweden or in Korea.
 
D
 Doctors Without Borders (国界)
Chris is not a traditional explorer(探险家)— he usually works in an office for a large organization. However, Chris’ job can be just as exciting and dangerous as being an explorer.
Chris works for MSF, an organization also known as Doctors Without Borders. Since 1971, MSF has sent trained doctors all over the world to help people who have suffered from disasters(遭受灾难), such as wars and illnesses. Chris is a doctor from France who has traveled to many places to organize programs that help people.

At the moment, over 27,000 trained doctors have taken part in MSF projects. The organization received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1999. All kinds of doctors can volunteer for MSF. They need to be ready to go almost anywhere in the world and, of course, they should face difficulties. Most of MSF’s work is in Africa. When MSF chooses a doctor for a task, they have to go for at least six months. When doctors have completed a few tasks, they might be sent on an emergency (紧急的) task following a disaster, such as an earthquake. 

But why would doctors leave a comfortable life and a good pay to join MSF? According to Chris, the experience you have is a great help in your life. What’s more, just like the explorers of the past, you need to keep an open mind and learn to get on well with the people you meet. One thing that you can say at the end of any task is that you have made a real difference to people’s lives.
77.What may MSF’s work be like?
A. Tiring and boring.          B. Exciting and dangerous.  
C. Relaxing and colorful.       D. Peaceful and comfortable.
78. As a volunteer doctor for MSF, he or she should______.
A. have worked in Africa for six months 
B. have been sent on an MSF emergency task
C. be ready to work for a task for at least half a year  
D. have suffered from wars , illnesses or other disasters
79. Why would doctors like to join MSF?
A. Because they can get a good pay.
B. Because they can have a comfortable life.
C. Because he can help others and get experience.
D. Because they can travel abroad with their families.
80. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Chris is a doctor who has organized programs to help people.
B. MSF received the Nobel Peace Prize for helping poor countries.
C. Volunteer doctors make a real difference to their own lives in MSF.
D. MSF offers medical help to people who have suffered from disasters.
 
B) 请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中,选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卷上将其序号涂黑。(每小题2分)

81. __________________ It has around 3 billion fans—nearly half the world’s population! And about 300 million people play this game. That’s 4 percent of the world’s population! 

82. __________________ Many people in old days played early forms(形式)of this modern game. Cu ju (蹴踘), a ball-kicking game in China, was reported as early as 2,500 B.C. Around the same time in Greece, people were also playing a similar ball game without using their hands.  
But modern soccer didn’t become official (官方的) until 1863. An Englishman called Cobb Morley introduced the idea of a football association(联盟). 83. _________________ From then on, other associations in countries were set up. They came together to make up the FIFA, which organizes the World Cup.
   It’s not easy to tell what makes soccer so popular. 84. _________________ Soccer needs only two feet and a ball. This makes it a sport that developing countries can easily play. Some of the sport’s best players come from these poor nations.
85. __________________ The sport’s no-hands rule makes beautiful dance-like movements on the field. What’s more, this sport excites the heart. Teams might score only a few times each match, so matches can turn around suddenly.
No one knows who will win at the next World Cup. But one thing is certain: The world will be watching.
A. He also wrote the sport’s official rules.
B. Soccer is the world’s favorite sport.
C. Playing soccer is good for your health.
D. But one reason is how simple the sport is.
E. People love soccer as well as their countries.
F. It’s hard to say where soccer’s birthplace is.
G. Soccer performances are pleasing to the eyes.
 
五、书面表达(15分)
 假设你是李华,你的美国笔友Daniel计划今年暑假来江西度假,他向你了解江西城市生活和农村生
活的情况,以便选择度假地点。请你根据下图提供的关键词,给他写一封邮件,先介绍城市生活和农村生活的相同点和不同点,然后说说你自己更喜欢哪种生活,并说明理由。

 

 

 

提示:1.邮件内容须用上所有的关键词,可适当发挥,使行文连贯;
       2. 可以从吃、住、行、娱乐四方面简要介绍两种生活的不同点;
      3.词数不少于80。开头和结尾已为你写好,不计入总词数。
Dear Daniel,
I’m very happy that you are coming to Jiangxi to spend your summer holiday. There are some similarities and differences between city life and country life. ____________________________
                                                                               
                                                                              
                                                                             
                                                                               
                                                                             
                                                                              
                                                                              
                                                                              
                                                                             
I am looking forward to meeting you!
Best wishes!
Li Hua
 
 
 
江西省2011年中等学校招生考试
                    英语试题听力材料
试听材料:
M: I’m going shopping, Mum. Do you need anything?
W: Yes, get some apples and some oranges to make juice with.
M: Well, we already have lots of oranges.
W: OK, just some apples then.
答案是C。
 
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将其填到答题卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: Hello! Kevin! What are you doing now?
M: Not much. Do you have any plans?
W: I want to take a walk.
2. M: Hello, may I speak to Mary, please?
W: Sorry, she’s out at the moment. Can I take a message?
M: Thanks. Please ask her to call me back. My telephone number is 8-5-1-3-2-6-9.
W: 8513269, right?
M: That’s right.
3. M: We’re going to London tomorrow.
W: Will it be snowy?
M: You must be kidding! It may not even be cold, just wet. The weather report says it will be windy.
4. M: Hey, Sally. You’re late. The museum is closed.
 W: Sorry. My grandma visited us this morning, so I stayed at home and talked with her.
M: That’s OK.
5. M: Oh, please. I have to see the dentist right now. I have a terrible toothache.
 W: Sorry, he is busy now. Let me see, have you phoned before?
 M: Sorry, I haven’t.
 
B)请听下面3段对话和2段独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将其填到答题卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前你都将有30秒钟的时间阅读各小题。每段对话或独白读两遍。
请听第1段对话,回答第6至第7小题。
W: Hi, Jason. How are you?
M: I’m hungry.
W: I can bring you some food. What would you like?
M: Noodles, please.
W: I’ll go and get some for you. Did you eat breakfast?
M: No.
W: Why didn’t you eat breakfast?
M: My aunt was not at home. She didn’t make breakfast for me.
请听第2段对话,回答第8至第10小题。
W: What are you going to do on holiday, Tony?
M: We’re going to Sydney.
W: You’ll love it! I went there two months ago. We had a great time.
M: How long did it take to get there?
W: It took about 12 hours.
M: And who was with you?
W: My aunt and uncle met me at the airport.
M: And where did you go?
W: Well, first, we went to Disneyland.
M: How long did you spend there?
W: We spent two days there. And then we went shopping.
请听第3段对话,回答第11至第13小题。
W: Hello, People’s Cinema. Can I help you?
M: Hello, I’m phoning about tickets for this Saturday.
W: Which movie would you like to watch?
M: Have you got tickets for “My Father’s Birthday”?
W: Sorry. There aren’t any tickets left for it.
M: What about “ The Sound of Music”?
W: Oh, yes. We have some tickets.
M: Oh, right.What time does the movie start?
W: It starts at eight o’clock in the evening.
M: OK. How much do the tickets cost?
W: They’re 50 dollars each.
M: 50 dollars?! Can I phone back later? I’ll ask my mum.
W: Oh, that’s OK.
请听第1段独白,回答第14至第16小题。
Hello, boys and girls. Now I’m going to tell you a story. You need to listen carefully, because I’ve got a problem about the story for you to discuss. Are you ready? … OK.
A man is driving home late at night. It’s raining and it’s very cold. At a bus stop he sees three people waiting for a bus. The first person is his best friend. This friend once saved his life. The second person is an old lady. She’s very ill and needs to go to hospital. The third person is a  young woman. The man loves this woman very much. The man wants to help all three people but he can only take one person in his car. What should he do?
  I’ll give you 5 minutes to have a discussion in groups of four. After discussion, please tell us your answers and tell us why.
请听第2段独白,回答第17至第20小题。
   Hello! Everyone! Let me show you a nice picture.
    This is my family at my mum’s birthday party last year. These are my parents. My father is 42, and he’s an engineer. He rides a horse very well. My mother is a nurse. She is 38. She works very hard.Uncle Simon is behind my parents. He’s 45 years old and he’s a doctor at a hospital. He can play football. My aunt Liz is next to Uncle Simon. She’s my mum’s sister. She’s 31 years old. She’s a music teacher. She plays the piano very well and she can speak a little Chinese.
    My sister and I are in front of my parents. We are both students. That’s all. Thanks a lot!
 
C)请听下面一段短文,根据短文内容完成表格,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置。听短文前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读表格内容。短文读两遍。(每小题1分)
Good morning, here is SunshineHigh School on the radio. There’s a wonderful party in our school meeting room tonight. It starts at 7:30. It’s for our foreign teacher –Mr Green. He has been teaching here for 2 years. He teaches so well that everyone likes him. But he’s going back to London next week. We’ll have to say goodbye to him. To show our thanks, everyone can bring a small present for him. The Beach Boys will play all their new songs. They’re our favourite band. Everyone will dance to the music. We’ll be enjoying ourselves here. Come and join us! See you at 7:30 tonight.
 
江西省2011年中等学校招生考试
英语试题参考答案及评分意见
一、听力测试(共25小题,每小题1分)
1~5 ABCCB       6~10 ABCCA      11~15 BACCA     16~20 BBACB 
21. 7:30/seven thirty/half past seven           22. meeting room    
23. Mr Green/our foreign teacher   24. a (small) present/gift         25. dancing  
二、单项填空(共15小题,每小题1分)
26~30 CCDCA       31~35 AADBD        36~40 BDCBB
三、完形填空(共25小题,每小题1分)
A)   41~45 DBAAC    46~50 BDACD        51~55 BCBAD
B) 56. difficult  57. classes 58. someone   59. started      60. badly  
61. succeed  62. so     63. medical  64. reporter     65. thank
四、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分)
66~70 ADCBB                        71~75 CADBA          
76~80 ABCCD                        81~85 BFADG
五、书面表达(15分)
One Possible Version
Dear Daniel,
I’m very happy that you are coming to Jiangxi to spend your summer holiday. There are some similarities and differences between city life and country life. Both in the city and in the country, people’s life is getting better and better. They pay more and more attention to keeping fit. However, there are some differences.
In the city people go to supermarkets to buy what they need. They eat at home or in restaurants. They live in apartments and travel around by car or bus. After work, they go to cinemas, clubs or parks to relax themselves. In the country, people grow vegetables and rice by themselves. They live in houses and ride motorbikes or bicycles to go around. In their spare time they would like to visit their neighbors or watch TV at home.
As for me, I prefer to live in the city because there are more places to enjoy myself. I often go to libraries, bookstores and science museums, where I can learn much about the world.
I am looking forward to meeting you!
Best wishes!
Li Hua
 
评分意见:
(一)总体原则
考查学生综合运用语言的能力,注重语言表达的意义和流畅性。
(二)内容要点
1.城市生活和农村生活的相同点;
2.城市生活和农村生活的不同点:
(1)吃 (2)住 (3)行 (4)娱乐;
3.学生自己更喜欢的生活及喜欢的理由。
(三)评分档次
1.第一档(13-15分)
信息完整,表达流畅,无语言错误或基本无语言错误。
2.第二档(10-12分)
信息基本完整,表达较流畅,有少量错误,但不影响意思表达。
3.第三档(7-9分)
能传递部分信息,表达不够流畅,但句子基本可读。
4.第四档(4-6分)
只能传递少量信息,表达不通顺,只有少量句子可读。
5.第五档(1-3分)
只能传递个别信息,表达不清楚,只有个别句子可读。
(四)建议
1.城市生活和农村生活的相同点和不同点,分值为10分;
2.学生说说自己更喜欢哪种生活,并说明理由,分值为5分。